newtoallthis
Registered User
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- 16
Is The only thing I can think of is that your father is being asked instead of receiving sale proceeds on a defined closing date, to accept instead a charge over the sold property, presumably with a defined date for repayment. If it is non - recourse, that would simply mean that the developers could never be held liable themselves for more than the value of the property.
Thanks munsterdude,
that is a fantastic explanation, clears a lot of things up, thank you so much for your expertise, much appreciated
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