both VAT and CGT.
Don't rule out the possibility that the entire deal may be taxable to income tax as "dealing in land", s.640 TCA 1997.
The link quoted is broken so I can't ascertain why Income tax would be the case here since CGT applies to asset sales as far as I'm aware?Income Tax possibly instead of CGT.
Well it wouldn't be 'dealing in land' anyway since the property is already fully completed. My solicitor's take is since my son is unlikely to be able to get on the property ladder himself (he has additional needs) it's worth considering from both a taxation and other perspectives .Apologies - the link is here: https://www.askaboutmoney.com/threa...ble-for-capital-gains-tax.241169/post-1949926
(he has additional needs
I wouldn't be so sure of that but it's way above my pay grade.Well it wouldn't be 'dealing in land' anyway since the property is already fully completed.
In the context of the OP's query...If you provide a house to a dependent relative, the capital gain on sale may be exempt from CGT. Not if you sell it or gift it to him, but if you give it to him rent-free.
My solicitor has suggested that it would be far more tax efficient to gift it to my son
What's the difference between 'gift 'and give? Perhaps this is what the solicitor was referring to.Not if you sell it or gift it to him, but if you give it to him rent-free.
if you give it to him rent-free
To be clear, by "give" and "provide" here, you mean that the OP allows his son to occupy the house and doesn't charge him any rent? He doesn't actually give him any asset at all — the house remains the property of the OP?provide it to him rent-free
Worth noting that the exemption in this case is partial, highly specific and highly conditional and will undoubtedly be further tightened if there is ever a perception that it is being used as a tax planning tool.If you keep it and provide it to him rent-free and sell it at some stage in the future, the gain between now and the time of sale may be exempt from CGT
'The gain between now and the time of sale.' Am I correct in assuming that if the house is worth 800k now (but has cost me a significant amount to build), and I decide not to sell it, but keep it and allow my son to live in it rent-free. when/if a few years down the line it is worth say 900k, it's only the 100k gain between now and then that is allowable for relief?2) If you keep it and provide it to him rent-free and sell it at some stage in the future, the gain between now and the time of sale may be exempt from CGT
No. The principle of how partial PPR CGT relief is dealt with is illustrated in example 2 here:when/if a few years down the line it is worth say 900k, it's only the 100k gain between now and then that is allowable for relief?
There is no certainty whatsoever that you will be allowed any relief. We simply don't know enough of the facts of your own and your son's situation. Nor do we know what the CGT rules will be when you eventually dispose of the property.Am I correct in assuming that if the house is worth 800k now (but has cost me a significant amount to build), and I decide not to sell it, but keep it and allow my son to live in it rent-free. when/if a few years down the line it is worth say 900k, it's only the 100k gain between now and then that is allowable for relief
Thank you. So it seems Dependent Relative Relief operates much the same as PPR relief in that the entire amount would be exempt from time of occupation. This must be what my solicitor was getting at.No. The principle of how partial PPR CGT relief is dealt with is illustrated in example 2 here:
I'm still not entirely convinced letting him live in a brand new 800k property is the way to do it!
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