That looks like a sensible approach to me.I’m considering taking the €1.9m account now, withdrawing a 25% lump sum and investing the remainder in an ARF. And leaving the Zurich accounts in place, which can (hopefully) continue to grow and withdraw these in 2028/9 when the SFT is higher.
The big question is whether you have enough money to enjoy retirement!
For defined contribution schemes and PRSAs the valuation (or capitalisation of the fund) for the purpose of the SFT regime is the market value of the assets in the individual’s fund or PRSA at the time their benefits are crystallised. This value, with the value of previously crystallised benefits, is compared to the SFT (or a PFT where relevant) and any excess is liable for CET.
Isn't it the case that the Chargeable Excess Tax won't be reviewed until 2030?There are some proposals under consideration that might help. There's a proposal to reduce the CET to 10% (unlikely). There's a proposal to allow DC savers to pay the tax over 20 years (more likely).
In a statement today, the Department of Finance said the Chargeable Excess Tax (CET) will remain unchanged but will be reviewed in 2030.
Is there an official resource that is explicit on this question to confirm whether a euro value or percentage would be used? Or is this something Revenue would need to give guidance on?
in any other case (which by definition means a case where some but not all of the SFT (€2m) or PFT, as the case may be, has been used up by prior BCE’s) the amount of the SFT or PFT that is available at the time of the later (i.e. current) BCE, is the balance after deducting the amount of the prior BCE’s.
Meaning of previously used amount
Paragraph 5 provides that in determining “the previously used amount” for the purposes of calculating how much, if any, of the SFT or PFT is available at the time of a current BCE, the amount of each prior BCE must be adjusted in accordance with a formula. This ensures, in the context of a reduction in the SFT, that the value of a prior BCE can never be less than its capital value at the time it crystallised.
Can you clarify what you mean by "sufficiently" here?Given the likely percentage calculation (which was news to me), I think I would be inclined to go for Option 3 - go to cash and then retire all funds in 2026 when the SFT has increased sufficiently.
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