Hi,
I’m completing a joint tax return at the moment for myself and my husband and I’m hoping someone can help me. I’m a PAYE worker and my husband is a ‘house husband’ looking after our child.
We each have an Irish investment property in our own names. In our tax return, the details for each house are recorded under ‘self’ or ‘spouse’. This means that the income and expenditure for myself and my husband are slightly different for our Irish properties.
We also have two foreign investment properties (big mistake but that’s another story). Since the foreign properties are in both our names I’ve divided the rent and expenses every year 50/50 between us so that the income/expenditure details are the same for both of us.
In 2009 unfortunately we had a significant unplanned expense for one of our foreign properties and I paid this bill out of my salary. My question is whether it’s reasonable to put this expense as a “spouse” expense only since I paid it? This means that my husband’s net income from our foreign investments is higher than mine. I’ve a feeling that I probably can’t do this since the foreign properties are jointly owned.
Any advice appreciated.
Geeb
I’m completing a joint tax return at the moment for myself and my husband and I’m hoping someone can help me. I’m a PAYE worker and my husband is a ‘house husband’ looking after our child.
We each have an Irish investment property in our own names. In our tax return, the details for each house are recorded under ‘self’ or ‘spouse’. This means that the income and expenditure for myself and my husband are slightly different for our Irish properties.
We also have two foreign investment properties (big mistake but that’s another story). Since the foreign properties are in both our names I’ve divided the rent and expenses every year 50/50 between us so that the income/expenditure details are the same for both of us.
In 2009 unfortunately we had a significant unplanned expense for one of our foreign properties and I paid this bill out of my salary. My question is whether it’s reasonable to put this expense as a “spouse” expense only since I paid it? This means that my husband’s net income from our foreign investments is higher than mine. I’ve a feeling that I probably can’t do this since the foreign properties are jointly owned.
Any advice appreciated.
Geeb