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The two owner occupiers can claim the full relief that applies to them. If your mother was effectively a joint buyer and was not a FTB then all of you collectively are considered non FTBs even if two of you never bought a house before as far as I know.
Is her name on the property deeds? If so then she does have a beneficial interest. Even being on the mortgage may be deemed having a beneficial interest. Probably best to get independent, professional advice.Hi, thanks for the help. My mother-in-law is on the mortgage as a joint applicant as my wife's income was not enough. However, the mother-in-law has no beneficial interest in the property as she is not an owner and has no title to the property.
As above/We did not pay SD on the purchase as we were first time buyers and there didn't seem to be a problem with this when we bought the house. Obviously, the mother-in-law is not a FTB but then she wasn't buying the property only going on the mortgage.
I don't think that there is any worst case scenario here. You and your wife are entitled to it as far as I can see so you should apply and backdate the claim too.I was unclear that as we want to apply for TRS on the mortgage whether all 3 people had to be resident. The Revenue refer to "owner-occupiers" but clearly in this case only 2 people are "owner-occupiers" but 3 people are on the mortgage. It seems mighty confusing!?
What's the worse that can happen if I apply for TRS?
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