If there is no official HR policy you need to find out if anyone else was ever paid while on m-leave in which case there is a precedent set and you should get it.
I would be interested to know if this is correct? I would imagine that companies would be more inclined to pay maternity top up in a higher paying/senior position where the person could not so easily be replaced. Surely this doesn't mean that they would have to pay all employees on maternity leave?
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