How come they have the majority vote? Do they own the majority of properties?On the issue of getting the 2 Dev Directors removed, unfortunately it would take intervention from the ODCE as they have the majority vote.
Firstly, many thanks for your reply. Indeed it is completely contradictory. We do have proof that no building lease exists for the building that 'houses' the commercial unit' so as we have been advised, a normal process of recouping the outstanding fees through a debt recovery process doesn't come into play, this is on advice from a legal team.
There is a plan to get in touch with the ODCE regarding the behavior of the 2 Dev Directors, however we are concerned that doing so would result in an immediate insolvency situatuation. What I can't get my head around is that the debt is listed as part of our current assets, however the debt is not disclosed in the Third Part transactions according to FRS8 section 17.2(i). From what I understand, no disclosure is because of the building lease issue, but how can they include the debt, but not disclose?
On the issue of getting the 2 Dev Directors removed, unfortunately it would take intervention from the ODCE as they have the majority vote.
Yes the 2 Dev Derectors own a majority of the residential units, this does not include for any of the commercial units as there is no building lease binding them to the OMC so they don't have votes for those properties. As it stands, the privately owned residential units only make up appx 30-35% of the votes.
Majority vote was quashed in 2011. Today we work on a one member one vote as per the MUD act 2011 so each director will have one vote regardless of how many units they own.
this does not include for any of the commercial units as there is no building lease binding them to the OMC so they don't have votes for those properties.
According to Section 15 (2) of the MUD Act it is one vote per residential unit, not one vote per member. So in our case, the Dev Directors own 60-65% of the residential units, which they do pay mgmt fees for and are settled up on that account.
We do have proof that no building lease exists for the leisure centre, as we also have proof of the Dev Directors ownership of the leisure centre, via the cro, and we also know that it is listed for a strike off as they are heavily in debt, again info obtained from the cro.
Another question is how serious is it if one of the Directors failed to include his directorship relating to the OMC on the B1 Annual return, however he has signed off on our budget submissions for the last 4 years?
I have a copy of the Company Law Handbook on Residential Properties, which has been very helpful, but can also be rather confusing.
We do have proof that no building lease exists for the leisure centre, as we also have proof of the Dev Directors ownership of the leisure centre, via the cro, and we also know that it is listed for a strike off as they are heavily in debt again info obtained from the cro.
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Joe, you raise a good point. Our development is a PPP mixed use, the leisure centre is housed within a different block, but does also include residential units, I can't go into much more than that though because it is a very complicated messy situation and is being looked at with a legal team.
I have been advised by a solicitor, however that w/o a building contact binding them to the OMC, there is a possibility that it be that we could argue a right of way and effectively barre them from operating or selling / leasing the residential units within that building, but then again that would have to be decided amongst level eagles and I am not one either.
anyway, that is still not the question here, simply how can the Directors be on either side of the fence at the same time and what consequences could be faced if we, members of the OMC, complain to the ODCE?
Let me simplify. Directors for the developers framed a property contract for the leisure centre. The same directors run the leisure centre and say that they are not part of the management company and so do not have to pay management fees. These same directors are also directors of the management company, whose accounts show the leisure centre owing unpaid fees. These same directors have signed off on these accounts and so can be deemed to agree with the position of the management company. So, remembering that in each situation, the directors are the same people;Is there an actionable conflict of interest occurring?
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