No, not in those circumstances.Is the landlord not obliged to offer the property back to them?
If the property is in a RPZ, then the RPZ formula is applicable to the determination of the rent (or at least that's what the law says).If this doesn't happen, I presume recent measures mean that the rent the landlord can charge cannot be raised beyond 4% of what it was?
No, not in those circumstances.
If the property is in a RPZ, then the RPZ formula is applicable to the determination of the rent (or at least that's what the law says).
When terminating under this ground, a landlord is required to swear a statutory declaration that he or she intends to enter into a binding contract to sell the property within 3 months of terminating the tenancy.Seems like it is up to the former tenant to keep landlords honest under this legislation so if you are feeling up to it and have the time then start preparing your complaint.
Sorry, a little off topic, but if in the RPZ, could a landlord raise the rent above the 4% if the tenant is agreeable? For example, the landlord has just acquired the property, the property is not achieving anything near market value. The fact that the rent is 50% below market value is not in dispute.
Whats the offence of making a false statutory declaration? It seems like a helluva lot of landlords are perjuring (or its equivalent) themselves.
The fact that the property was withdrawn from sale before the three months were up, put back for rent - possibly at higher rent than is permitted - well, if it walks like a duck and quacks like a duck...
maybe just bringing some of these dodgy landlords into the complaints process will be no picnic for them either.
I have never heard a child complain about dodgy landlords...
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