Irish Bond Yield Falls

Brendan Burgess

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This report in the [broken link removed] online sounds very negative

Irish bonds "lost" four basis points
The yield on Italian bonds "slipped"
The Spanish yield "declined"
The Poruguese yield was "down"

Would it not be more correct to say "Cost of borrowing falling for Irish government?"

I suppose if you were an investor hoping to buy new issues of the shares, the return will be lower. But I suspect that the readership of The Irish Times will be happy to see the Irish "losing" and "slipping" and "going down" .
 
You cant be seen to be giving any credit for decisions made that may have contributed to lower cost of borrowing. You could get lynched for even tacitly agreeing with a member of government nowdays, not to mention it's unfashion-ability among media 'experts'.
 
When the opposite happens, they are still falling...

[broken link removed]

Greek bonds fall as deficit widens
 
shanegl said:
Its standard language.
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Not really, particularly if coupled with a clause like "following declines in Italian and Spanish bonds". It's pretty obvious that the author of the piece does not appreciate that yields and values are inversely related. Italian and Spanish (and Irish by implication) bonds did not "decline" - they grew (in value).

Small comfort admittedly given the condition of the country's finances but markets are like that.
 
What does this mean?

The Government sells bonds to get money. Presumably there is a return on these bonds for those that buy them. This return has gone down?
I can see where this is good, in that Ireland doesn't have to pay as much as a return on these bonds (if that's how it works).

Is there a bad side to this?
 
Exactly - there is no bad side for the Irish government but this is just one small movement in the fluctuating market value of bonds. This market has been quite volatile over the last year or so.

Think of it like an investment property; let's say you were making 10k a year net renting out a property worth 100k - that's a 10% yield. If the value of the property jumps to 200k - your 10k a year rent is now "only" giving you a 5% yield. Would you be dissapointed with the "reduced" yield? Hell no - you're 100k better off.

So the value has increased and the yield has declined.

In this analogy, the Irish government would be building and selling new investment properties; what they used to be able to sell for 100k, they can now sell for 200k.

I've highly exaggerated the figures here to make the sums simple - in reality we are talking about yield movements measured in basis points (hundreds of a percentage) and value movements measured in tenths of a percent - not prices doubling like in the above example.
 

Brendan Burgess said:
This report in the Irish Times online sounds very negative
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Brendan Burgess said:

.... But I suspect that the readership of The Irish Times will be happy to see the Irish "losing" and "slipping" and "going down" .
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Regarding the extract above, why do we assume that the IT’s readership cannot draw its own conclusions as to what it means if yields drop? Or are you saying they can, but that the readership prefers, what you infer, is negativity. I just ask because (even though I don’t agree with the inference) why does it only apply to IT readers? A read of the FT, WSJ and other publications will show that they generally report in the same manner. Note also that both stories came from ‘Agencies’ – i.e. basically a copy and paste from news sources the IT has a licence to take stories from. So perhaps shooting the wrong messenger here?

I take the point mentioned by another poster that there could be an issue with the journo (whoever he/she is) not understanding what was written, but the written words are not wrong and as someone else pointed out are in fact standard reporting. Over the past 20 years of my investment management experience both overseas and in Ireland (at a combination of regulated firms and regulators) I cannot see the journo’s wording being wrong or misleading. In fact I have seen the same words used in regulatory enforcement actions.

Regarding the second story from the IT, we also need to note that we cannot draw comparisons between the subject matters of the two articles to criticise the IT’s copy and paste exercise. The second article is premised on CDSs for (or cost of insuring) Greek sovereign debt. The first article is premised upon a drop in yields. I think we need to compare like with like and again note that it is Agency reporting as opposed to the IT’s journos. I have no love or hate for any Irish journos from any paper – but I don’t understand why only IT readers were brought into the fray. Is it not the same for readers of the Indo, Examiner, SBP etc?

What I would love to see in Irish papers is analysis of why yields dropped, why spreads widened and how the CDS market operates. I am sure that some out there will argue that any drop in Greek yields is due to the rescue package. I wonder what way the markets will move should it become apparent that Greece is not capable of meeting the strict conditions that Germany and to some extent France are yet to impose. And even if the Greeks state that they can meet these as yet unknown requirements, I wonder whether the statement will be treated with great circumspect since Greece was caught out misstating its deficit? An interesting point for Ireland too given our deficit misstatement - sorry that apparently was just a technical issue which we fixed without EuroStat telling us to do so -even though we were in discussions with EuroStat about the issue (sounds all a bit circumspect to me). Unfortunately for us markets trade on headlines – see article in today’s Sunday Times headed "Euro traders’ deadly gaze fixes on Ireland" at timesonline.co.uk/tol/news/world/ireland/article7107230.ece
 
OakesP, are you honestly claiming that it is standard to describe a fall in bond yields as "a decline in bonds"?

I also work in the financial industry and I have never heard this usage. Stating that a bond or bond markets have declined ALWAYS means that their values have fallen not that their yields have declined.

On the other hand, I agree with you to an extent on your other point. Often I feel Brendan is overly sensitive to/critical of what he perceives as inaccuracy in the media when the commentator is pessimistic. I generally ascribe such inaccuracies to shockingly poor quality of the Irish press and media particularly when it comes to finance; let's face it a huge amount of rubbish has been written by the optimists when it comes to the banking crisis, the property market and the economy generally over the last couple of years also.

But I suppose that when the professor of finance in the most prestigious university in the country doesn't know the difference between an asset and a liability, it is difficult to expect accuracy from journalists even those who are "specialists" in business, finance or economics.
 
I am always astonished by the inaccuracies/misstatements written by journalists in subjects in which I consider myself knowledgeable. I presume that this is widespread among other subjects and thus, generally, I take what is written in newspapers, however prestigious, with a large grain of salt.
 
As was already mentioned, the article was probably copied from another news source but the original article would have een aimed at the financial community where bond yields as opposed to prices are normally discussed.

The Irish Times article was written for Joe Public who wouldn't know bond yields from their elbow.Most would assume a drop is bad news.

I think the journo either a) selectively sourced the article to fit in with a recessionary theme or b) was too stupid to realise that a drop in bond yields is positive news.

Either way, not great journalism.


It's only news if something if falling in the papers.
 
dubrov said:
As was already mentioned, the article was probably copied from another news source but the original article would have een aimed at the financial community where bond yields as opposed to prices are normally discussed.
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Yes, bonds are often measured by yield instead of value in the financial industry but I have never heard of a "decline in bonds" being used to describe a decline in bond yields. You would always include the word "yields" to distinguish the latter from the former. In my experience, a "decline in bonds" without explicitly stating values or yields would always be understood as a decline in bond values.

Most likely the journalist or editor did not know the difference and dropped the word "yields" from the original source which completely inverts its meaning. The first sentence was probably sourced from something like "The yield on Irish 10-year government bonds lost four basis points today, following falls in Italian and Spanish bond yields."
 
 
Oakesp asked

Hi Peter. I was wrong in that comment. I should have assumed very poor journalism first over some conspiracy theory or preference for bad news.

I just found it striking that there was some good news, and they managed to twist it right around to make it look like bad news.

And, of course, even if my conspiracy theory was correct, Irish Time journalists or their readers would not be in any way unique.
 

Brian Lucey
 
Brendan, Occasionally I notice that the FT describes what I would normally think to be straight-forward concepts in overtly simple terms to its readers. At first this took me by surprise but then I noticed this approach generally happens in their weekend editions. I understand the weekend edition has a wider class of readership than just the pinstripes who read (at least) Monday-Friday's FT editions. That is a good example of a paper catering to its audience in terms of explaining issues - the way good journalism should be. But I am sure the FT has its detractors (for good reason) and I sometimes see it use negative language where more positive text could equally suffice to report on an issue.

As I now think is your point - nothing seems to grab the attention of the reader at this time in history than negative news.
 
OakesP, I responded to your claim the language used was not wrong and was standard.

I disputed that this language is standard and still dispute it. I pointed out simply that "declines in bonds" or "declines in Italian or Spanish bonds" would be read (by those with an interest in such things) as a decline in bond values not yields.

The whole point here is that the sentence in its entirety - "The yield on Irish 10-year government bonds lost four basis points today, following declines in Italian and Spanish bonds." - does not make sense and would not be written by a finance professional because of the implicit assumption of correlation between euro government bond prices. So adding this context only makes the sentence nonsensical.

I'm not sure what it is about the second paragraph that you view as being irrelevant - we are discussing the accuracy of financial language after all. I simply described my experience of the use of such language.

And I think the contextual aspects do not correct the mistake here; if the sentence were written "The yield on Irish 10-year government bonds lost four basis points today, despite declines in Italian and Spanish bonds.", I still wouldn't read the qualifying second clause as referring to bond yields even though the correlation is inverted.

The professor is a certain Mr Lucy of TCD who claimed in an Irish Times article and subsequent in radio interviews that Anglo's 27 billion euro deposit book could be sold (at a small discount) for 25 billion. This 25 billion cash would then be enough to cover the hole in it's balance sheet. When challenged on this on an internet forum he very suddenly decided that he could not immediately respond as he was leaving at that very minute for a 3 week holiday during which he would be uncontactable. Obviously we've heard nothing more about this wondrous plan to fix Anglo which was announced by the good professor with much fanfare.
 
Darag - If the sentence in the article is considered wrong, one would argue that it is wrong not because of a financial misinterpretation (e.g. confusing CDOs with CDSs) by the journo, but rather because the sentence is considered contradictory regardless of the subject matter. The sentence was not wrong on this basis. Whether you and I agree/disagree as to it being standard reporting is neither here nor there unless we want to waste time crawling through investment reports and newspaper stories and comparing results. At the end of the day the sentence in the IT article was not wrong, rather it could have been written better. The only thing wrong here is that you erroneously read my comments and challenged them without analysing what I in fact wrote. These things happen from time to time and no harm done.

Further anybody reading the IT article would (a) without financial experience - think something didn't make sense (probably the topic generally) or (b) if they had investment experience - would know that the word 'yield' at the end of the sentence could (not 'should') have been there in order to dot the i's and cross the t's.

Therefore no need to discuss your original second paragraph because the point you want to debate with me hinges on the IT article being factually wrong. In respect of my view that I have seen this language used as standard language in other documents, we can settle this if we want to play a game of "show me yours and I’ll show you mine (i.e. evidence)".

Anyway I can see posters to this thread becoming bored with this exchange, so we can agree to differ or pick up in PMs.

By the way, context is everything. Quoting out of context serves no useful purpose and damages the legitimate points the quoter seeks to make. And I think the re-worded sentence (if you are suggesting it as a replacement) is technically worse than the original IT one. The new sentence makes me wonder why I should consider it strange that Spanish and Italian bond yields (even though the word ‘yield’ is not used next to these countries' bonds) dropped simply because Irish yields dropped.

Thanks for the BL stuff. I have now read over those comments.
 
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