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I read up on the whole clawback issue and as far as I can see I wont have to pay the stamp duty no matter how much rent I receive:.
The element of interest that applies to the rental income will be allowable. The element that relates to your own occupation of the property (presumably one-third) will not be allowable. Again professional advice is recommended unless you know exactly what you're doing here.I'm still in the dark with regard to declaring my mortgage interest payments as a 'cost' and offsetting them against the rent I will receive (thereby reducing the income tax I would have to pay). Anyone know if I can do this?
An owner occupier is a person who purchases a new apartment or house for use as their principal place of residence (PPR) and no rent, other than rent obtained under the rent-a-room scheme, is derived from the property for a period of five years from the date of the current purchase. This relief is subject to clawback provisions.
This is correct Howitzer, but in the OPs case they are not planning on turning it into an investment property. It is still going to be their PPR and they are only obaining rental income under the Rent-A-Room scheme (even if it exceeds the threshold at which they would have to pay tax or not) so no stamp duty clawback will apply.My understanding was that once the property became an investment property then stamp duty was liable.
In which case the OP can't offset interest against rental income (investment property), but can claim TRS (PPR)? That would seem to me to be a reasonable interpretation.
Reasonable perhaps in terms of logic, but correct in terms of the law? I'm not so sure.
if Revenue disagree when you make your tax return then you've very little comeback.
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