What is the position where a person, being a first time buyer, purchases a house using the proceeds of the sale of a house owned by their spouse or partner who is not a first time buyer? Where a person who is a first time buyer uses the proceeds of the sale of the house they previously occupied which was owned solely by their spouse or partner to buy a house solely in their own name, first time buyer relief would not be available as the spouse or partner (not being a first time buyer) would be providing the purchase monies for the house.
..where does the problem lie?
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