Hi Everybody,
Have a question from a non-Internet enabled friend - here is the situation:
(1) They bought a house a while back and got a family member to become a 'co-signee' of the mortgage. However the co-signee has not contributed to any of the monthly payments and apparently they were required on the mortgage as my friend could not get the amount they needed on their own.
(2) The friend would now like to get the property re-mortgaged so that they are the sole owner / signee of the mortgage
BUT
(3) The co-signee is now looking to buy a property of their own and does not want to be taken off the original mortgage as they would like to "lump that property into my assets so that I can borrow more".
Not knowing anything about the area I would have said it all depends on whose name is on the mortgage deeds - my friend reckons that only their name is on the deed and the co-signee is not on the deed.
If that is the case am I right in thinking the co-signee could not use the property as any kind of security or even for assesment purposes on their own new purchase.
Apologies if I have muddled any of the above - if it is not clear just let me know.
Many thanks for any opinions.
Have a question from a non-Internet enabled friend - here is the situation:
(1) They bought a house a while back and got a family member to become a 'co-signee' of the mortgage. However the co-signee has not contributed to any of the monthly payments and apparently they were required on the mortgage as my friend could not get the amount they needed on their own.
(2) The friend would now like to get the property re-mortgaged so that they are the sole owner / signee of the mortgage
BUT
(3) The co-signee is now looking to buy a property of their own and does not want to be taken off the original mortgage as they would like to "lump that property into my assets so that I can borrow more".
Not knowing anything about the area I would have said it all depends on whose name is on the mortgage deeds - my friend reckons that only their name is on the deed and the co-signee is not on the deed.
If that is the case am I right in thinking the co-signee could not use the property as any kind of security or even for assesment purposes on their own new purchase.
Apologies if I have muddled any of the above - if it is not clear just let me know.
Many thanks for any opinions.