A previous occupational pension scheme I had is being wound up by the trustees. I have been informed of the current value and my options. I have a query over the computation of the current value and also on the options available.
It is a Defined Benefit pension that peaks at 40/60s of final year salary. From this figure 1.5 times the state pension is deducted and then this becomes my annuity. My final salary was €51k (inclusive of bonuses and less pension contributions made by the company) and I have 9.4 years pensionable service. I am 36 and married with children and I would like my pension fund to be available to my family after I die.
Q1:
Should ("current value" of pension * open market rate of 6%) = (average salary during my last year employed with the company * pensionable service / 60)?
or in more detail ... my "current value" is €34k according to the agents for the trustees. I was told by a non-actuary in a pension company that a value of €34k would yield approx €2k annuity per year (i.e. the open market rate of 6% multiplied by the "current value"), whereas under the scheme that is being wound up I would have €51k * (9.4 / 60) = €8k (i.e. final year salary * pensionable service / 60) of an annual annuity ... this is 4 times higher than the €2k annuity derived from the "current value" indicated to me. Why the DISCREPANCY? I am querying this with the trustees but the agent wants to discharge his and the trustees' responisibilities to the pension this week and time is of the essence.
Q2:
given that I hope to be going back to work within 3 months and that my employer is likely to have an occupational scheme would you recommend a Buy Out Bond (personal pension bond) or a PRSA? My current intention is to put it in a Buy Out Bond, make no further payments into it and IF allowed by the actuaries in my new occupational pension scheme transfer it into that scheme at low or no cost.
QQQ
It is a Defined Benefit pension that peaks at 40/60s of final year salary. From this figure 1.5 times the state pension is deducted and then this becomes my annuity. My final salary was €51k (inclusive of bonuses and less pension contributions made by the company) and I have 9.4 years pensionable service. I am 36 and married with children and I would like my pension fund to be available to my family after I die.
Q1:
Should ("current value" of pension * open market rate of 6%) = (average salary during my last year employed with the company * pensionable service / 60)?
or in more detail ... my "current value" is €34k according to the agents for the trustees. I was told by a non-actuary in a pension company that a value of €34k would yield approx €2k annuity per year (i.e. the open market rate of 6% multiplied by the "current value"), whereas under the scheme that is being wound up I would have €51k * (9.4 / 60) = €8k (i.e. final year salary * pensionable service / 60) of an annual annuity ... this is 4 times higher than the €2k annuity derived from the "current value" indicated to me. Why the DISCREPANCY? I am querying this with the trustees but the agent wants to discharge his and the trustees' responisibilities to the pension this week and time is of the essence.
Q2:
given that I hope to be going back to work within 3 months and that my employer is likely to have an occupational scheme would you recommend a Buy Out Bond (personal pension bond) or a PRSA? My current intention is to put it in a Buy Out Bond, make no further payments into it and IF allowed by the actuaries in my new occupational pension scheme transfer it into that scheme at low or no cost.
QQQ