That’s presumably because your DB scheme is “integrated” with the State Pension. Both you and your Employer pay PRSI and thus “contribute” to providing the State Pension. So your DB scheme takes that into account in calculating your Occupational Pension.Hi, I don't know if it makes any difference to you or not, but in my case, my private Defined benefit pension reduces by the amount of the contributory state pension once the state pension becomes payable.
Simple answer is YES. Most integrated DB schemes manage this by reducing Salary to “Pensionable Salary” and basing the Occupational Pension on this lower figure.Yes, that sounds right Conan.
I don't want to takeover Bradbury's question, so I hope it is ok to ask this here, if you have a DB and it is integrated with the State Pension, what happens where you do not have the full amount of Class A contributions for a full contributory state pensiion? I presume the DB scheme assumes you will have and reduces it by the state pension amount regardless?
If you have less than “full service” then obviously your Occupational Pension will be less, but your State Pension might be the same if you have at least 40 years of A Class PRSI. So your calculation is correct.Oh that's brilliant Conan, thanks. Took me a few reads and a calculator to get my head around it, but that is good to know.
Would the same calc apply if the pension was deferred, so if for eg, you had 30 years service, salary of 60,000 when you left the scheme, would it be 60000 - (12911x 150%) = 40632? Based on 30 years service the occ pension would be 30/60 x 40632 = 20316. Adding full State pension 20316+12911 = 33227. Or is that even close to what might happen?
Hi Conan, Where does the 150% value come from? Why is it 150% of the full state pension.Simple answer is YES. Most integrated DB schemes manage this by reducing Salary to “Pensionable Salary” and basing the Occupational Pension on this lower figure.
So for example, if the DB scheme accrual is 1/60 for each year of service (40 years service being the maximum), and say Salary was €60,000, then Pensionable Salary would be defined as “Salary less 150% of the full State Pension”. The current State Pension is €248.30 (so €12,911 pa). So Pensionable Salary here would be 60,000 - (12,911 x 150%) = €40,632. If you have 40 years service in this example, the Occupational Pension will be 40/60 x €40,632 = €27,088. When the full State Pension is added, the total pension income will be €27,088 + €12,911= €40,000 (thus 40/60ths of full Salary).
If the overall objective is to provide a maximum pension of 40/60 (2/3rds after 40 years service), then the State Pension of €12,911 represents 2/3rds of €19,366. So in other words, the State are looking after the first €19,366 of Salary, with the Occupational Pension scheme looking after the excess. And €19,366 is 150% of €12,911 ( 2/3rds inverted).Hi Conan, Where does the 150% value come from? Why is it 150% of the full state pension.
Thanks
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