Blackrock1
Registered User
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Theoretical question, but if any employer was agreeable to it, is there any legal impediment to an employee foregoing say 35k of their salary taxed at their marginal rate and their employer employing their spouse and paying them that portion?
The spouse would have no other income and wouldnt actually be required to work for the company.
The spouse would have no other income and wouldnt actually be required to work for the company.