A neighbour of mine has a distantly related cousin who has a theoretical tax question.
Suppose a person is divorced
Too many variables and unknowns here.As far as I can make out
That's beside the point, as CGT operates on a self-assessment basis. There is a disposal yielding a capital gain for the joint owners. They will accordingly have to file CGT returns and pay their respective CGT liabilities within allotted timeframes which depend on the disposal date.Any alternative interpretations on how revenue might view this transaction?
The fact that you/they presumably thought that it was relevant reinforces my (already strong) opinion that independent professional tax advice is merited rather than a potentially error prone and costly DIY approach.The gentleman was paying spousal maintenance, child maintenance and covering the cost of both mortgages. After becoming unemployed and falling into arrears of maintenance the court ordered that the rental property be sold and the following sums were to be deducted from the proceeds:
1) the mortgage currently outstanding on the rental property
2) the mortgage on the family home in which the ex wife lives
3) a sum of money to capitalise child maintenance and cover arrears of spousal maintenance
Following the discharge of those sums the gentleman is entitled to the balance of funds from the property sale
Impossible to say without knowledge of all of the facts. E.g. the man could have huge resources compared to the woman so the arrangement regarding clearing the two mortgages could well be a reasonable/fair quid pro quo regarding division of the assets. Especially if, as is still common, the woman was the main home maker/child rearer in the marriage etc.Sounds like he’s getting royally shafted.
This is relevant to the key CGT question but there's still insufficient information to offer specific feedback on how their respective liabilities might be calculated.For clarity regarding the ownership: both houses (the family home and the rental property) are in joint names
Jointly owned assets
If you dispose of an asset that you jointly own, you only pay CGT on your share of the gain.
If he's a solicitor, especially if he's ever done conveyancing, then he's surely aware of the basics of CGT and how it applies in a case such as this?Also thanks Cruzer123 the gentleman solicitor has just been contacted to suggest clearing CGT before funds are distributed.
I don't really understand but all of this seems irrelevant to the key question about CGT.She does not work, never has - the gentleman worked and had a high income. He also reasoned that he would rather pay his ex wife than a bunch of barristers and solicitors so agreed to these terms during mediation.
Full details about the properties, details of beneficial ownership (whose names are on the respective deeds and what is the ownership split - it's assumed to be 50:50 but maybe it's not?), dates of acquisition and disposal, history of ownership and PPR occupation, acquisition costs, allowable expenses, selling prices etc...Thanks again Clubman any other specific information I could share?
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