I have looked through some of the previous threads relating to the amount of CGT that must be paid on the sale of a property that started out as a PPR but ended up being rented. One point remains unclear to me.
I sold a property that I owned for 7 years. 3 of these years it was my PPR and the remaining 4 it was rented.
Do I pay tax on 4/7 of the gain or (4-1)/7 of the gain?
If it is (4-1)/7, where does the 1 come from?
Were you also liable for a clawback of stamp duty when you rented the former PPR property out within five years of the original purchase and, if so, did you discharge this liability?
I general just write directly to Revenue with details of any such liabilities (or similarly claims for refunds) attaching as much relevant detail as possible. If you have outstanding liabilities and are not 100% sure of how much then you should probably get independent, professional advice from a tax expert/accountant.