Doesn't this depend on how the OPs name was added to the deeds. If it was as a joint tenant then I would agree with Gordon, however if it was as a tenant in common, which I think is more likely, then the base cost would be the husbands original acquisition cost.
I think you need professional advice.
Gordon, I think you might be wrong. Here is what I found on revenue site:I don't mean to alarm you, but if that's the case, you may have CGT to pay.
As I understand it, the gift into joint tenancy constituted a full disposal and reacquisition at the prevailing market value. That would have been much lower, say €130k. So you acquired 50% at (say) €65k. You then acquired the other 50% on the death of your husband, so let's assume the value was €150k at that time. Your base cost would be €140k. Then you sell it for €190k, and have to pay CGT on €50k.
The caveat is that it's a while since I looked at this stuff, so I could be wrong, but if I'm right I would give strong consideration to going after your solicitor for what may have been bad advice. It all depends on the valuations at the various points.
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