Hi lads & lassies,
First off, I'm not sure if this is posted in the right forum or not but here goes.
Myself and my wife are currently trying to sell our 4 bed semi with the aim of moving out the country a bit. I was advised by someone that the following formula could be applied to a property in order to arrive at an approximate value of the property.
((Monthly Rental x 12)/52) x 1000 = approximate value of the property.
When this formula is applied to our house it works out as follows,
700(daft asking price for similar house in the area) x 12 = 8400
8400/52 = 161 rent per week.
161 x 1000 = 161,000.
Low and behold the highest offer we have had on our house to date is 160K so I can see how this formula may hold some water.
My problem now is that we are interested in a particular house that is 3 miles outside town. It is a bungalow on 3/4 of an acre and was built in 1980 so it is fairly old. Our plan would be to rennovate it which would mean a further investment of 80K approx on top of the asking price and transaction costs.
In terms of affordability, using the 3.5 times earnings rule we could probably afford 280K approx. However I am having difficulty in putting a value on the bungalow as it stands.
My question is as follows.
Can you realistically apply the formula given above (used on my own house) to a one off rural house? If you can then the afforementioned bungalow is way overvalued. At its current asking price we could probably afford it and the rennovations based on our earnings but I do not want to pay over the odds for anything.
All opinions are welcome.
Thanks in advance.