Hi guys,
Hope you can help. Here the scenario: My girlfriends parents own a house (second house not their Principle residence)that they are willing to sell us cheap to get a foot up the property ladder, they are going to use the proceeds to buy a holiday apartment in the sun. My girlfriends parents have agreed to sell us the house at half the agreed valuation price.
So heres the deal... House was valued at €280,000 so we will buy at €140,000 as agreed. Now this is what i need to know, The house was originally bought 10 years ago for the equivalent of €60,000, there were obviously outlays such as stamp duty, solicitor fees etc at time of purchase so for agrument sake lets say the house ended up costing the parents €70,000.
If the capital gain tax is based on 20% of the difference between the buying price plus outlays and associated expenses less the selling price then the amount liable for CGT is €70,000 at 20% right ????
I need help with this guys as a number of people have told me that this is not the case and that the amount liable is the buying price plus outlays(€70,000) less the market valuation price (€280,000) which would make the amount liable for CGT at 20% of €210,000 and not 20% of €70,000.
Can this be true???
Any advice gladly appreciated.
Regards
Vicar
Hope you can help. Here the scenario: My girlfriends parents own a house (second house not their Principle residence)that they are willing to sell us cheap to get a foot up the property ladder, they are going to use the proceeds to buy a holiday apartment in the sun. My girlfriends parents have agreed to sell us the house at half the agreed valuation price.
So heres the deal... House was valued at €280,000 so we will buy at €140,000 as agreed. Now this is what i need to know, The house was originally bought 10 years ago for the equivalent of €60,000, there were obviously outlays such as stamp duty, solicitor fees etc at time of purchase so for agrument sake lets say the house ended up costing the parents €70,000.
If the capital gain tax is based on 20% of the difference between the buying price plus outlays and associated expenses less the selling price then the amount liable for CGT is €70,000 at 20% right ????
I need help with this guys as a number of people have told me that this is not the case and that the amount liable is the buying price plus outlays(€70,000) less the market valuation price (€280,000) which would make the amount liable for CGT at 20% of €210,000 and not 20% of €70,000.
Can this be true???
Any advice gladly appreciated.
Regards
Vicar