Yes, but only if all things are more or less equal in a subsequent case, and even then only if there has been no relevant legislation passed in the mean time, and no judge has overruled the decision in the case you are relying on as a precedent.
To explain, the Common Law system we have is based on a principle that courts follow precedents set in other courts of the same or higher jurisdiction. The only exceptions are (I think) where a court can distinguish the present case from the precedent case, because of significant differences in the facts, and where a court can point out where the previous judge erred in law.