Raging Bull
Registered User
- Messages
- 417
To correct Actually KBC likely gone at that point so its a really good question which the Central Bank should be answeringYou should be going on the KBC Standard Variable Rate equivalent , KBC have not left market so rate is linkked with theres. A big issue will be when they are really gone. What rate then ? How is that determined if the contract does not provide for it. The Central Bank need to be on top of that but likley are not
KBC have not left market so rate is linkked with theres
It is because the loan is sold under those terms, they cant treat you differently or would be in breach of CPC. The question arises like the poster raises What rate when the legacy bank is gone. Theres nothing to link it too. The Creditor in theory has to negoitate a new rate with you if the contract provides no alternative othereise the Debtor could rescind the operative interest clause contract based on Unfair terms legislationHI Bull
Even if they had not left the market, the rate would not be linked with theirs. Where are you getting that from?
I am campaigning for the vulture customers to be given the rate of the seller, if they are still active in the market.
Brendan
Hi BrendanHi Bull
I am arguing this, but no one seems to agree with me.
Is this just your opinion or do you have something more substantial to back it up? A Central Bank guideline or an Ombudsman's decision or a court decision?
Brendan
Sorry my mistake I was talking about Variable rates , I realize you were talking about Fixed
We have a complaint gone to FSPO as Start have broken the link on our PTSB Loan To Value Managed Variable Rate , it said in the terms PTSB would set the rate for the different bands and your locked in except for a switch to a fixed rate . The wording is very exact and it will be interesting how FSPO deal with same . I imagine there are many from the PTSB loan sales who had switched so they need to follow suit and complain , the more noise the better on this .Hi Brendan
Simply its the contract and a matter of law . But the contract cant perform if the legacy owner no longer exists. Both New owner and the Debtor have to apply whats in the contract. The difficulty arises when the contract is silent on the issue and the contract can't perform. They simply can't impose their own SVR as its a breach of EU law to impose conditions on others without consent unilaterally.
Who are you arguing with?
Yes the issue affects bothI am talking about both.
For example, if you had a ptsb loan which was sold to Pepper,
Pepper should offer you the rates which ptsb is offering to its customers today - fixed and variable.
Brendan
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