Query on crystallizing losses on shares

Godfather

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Hi all, query please... I keep looking in the revenue.ie website but I cannot find an answer to this query... I am aware that I can crystallize a loss when I sell share "A" only if I don't buy share "A" for at least another 28 days... But how long do I need to keep share "A" before selling it at a loss? Even 1 day? Thank you very much for your comment(s) please...
 
There are two rules to be aware of, covering two unrelated scenarios:
  • if you sell Share A to crystallise a loss, and buy it back within 28 days, then any subsequent loss on Share A can only be offset against shares of the same class;
  • if you buy Share A and sell it within 28 days, then the sold shares are considered to be the ones you just bought; in other words if you held other Share As from a previous purchase, you cannot crystallise a loss on them by buying more Share A and selling it immediately.
 
There are two rules to be aware of, covering two unrelated scenarios:
  • if you sell Share A to crystallise a loss, and buy it back within 28 days, then any subsequent loss on Share A can only be offset against shares of the same class

That isn’t correct...

If you sell Share A at a loss and buy it back within 28 days, the loss can only be offset against future gains in respect of Share A.

It’s the “subsequent” bit that’s wrong.
 
Thanks Gordon. Had a bit of a brain fade there, dunno what I was thinking. I should have just linked the [broken link removed].
 
  • if you buy Share A and sell it within 28 days, then the sold shares are considered to be the ones you just bought; in other words if you held other Share As from a previous purchase, you cannot crystallise a loss on them by buying more Share A and selling it immediately.

Ok, this means that if I bought quantity 30 of share A 30 days ago and quantity 20 of Share A 20 days ago and today I sell quantity 50 of Share A (I never owned Share A before the initial purchase 30 days ago) then as long as I don't rebuy share A for >28 days I can crystallize the total loss as amount of selling (it's clearly lower) minus the 2 purchase costs am I correct? Thank you so much. I'll make memory of this I promise :)
 
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