Just a quick question really. I saw on another forum that if a couple buys a house together without being married then if person-A puts in 90% of the money and person-B only puts in 10% then revenue can consider you liable for gift tax?
Is that correct?
It seems crazy to me but I figured I'd get a more precise answer here.
To be specific, we are an unmarried couple, 2 kids. We're jointly named on deeds, joint mortgage of roughly 105k, house purchase was approx 210k.
I put in most of the money, so could revenue actually pursue me for gift tax even though it's our own house?
Thanks in advance.
Is that correct?
It seems crazy to me but I figured I'd get a more precise answer here.
To be specific, we are an unmarried couple, 2 kids. We're jointly named on deeds, joint mortgage of roughly 105k, house purchase was approx 210k.
I put in most of the money, so could revenue actually pursue me for gift tax even though it's our own house?
Thanks in advance.