"if you are legagly separated/divorced and are not getting any proceeds from the sale of the familyl home, then you will be seen as a FTB. however if you are getting money from it then you will no longer be a FTB."
This is not correct. Below is the correct position from Revenue website:
"A spouse to a marriage the subject of a decree of judicial separation, a deed of separation, a decree of divorce or a decree of nullity in the case of the first acquisition of a house by the spouse following the separation or divorce provided that the spouse had, in relation to the former marital home,
• left that home;
• not retained an interest in that home;
whose separated/former spouse continues to occupy that home, which home was occupied by both spouses prior to the separation or dissolution of the marriage."
mf