Z
Z100
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(Hope it's okay to start this thread, I posted the same query in the middle of another general FTB thread but this is a more specific query)
I can't find an answer to this on the Revenue site so hoping someone can help.
House of relation, bought 40 years ago, was originally only in name of husband but later changed to joint names with his wife.
Husband died recently and wife is now sole owner of house.
She wants to sell and buy a smaller home.
I can't see any possible way that she could be categorised as a FTB, but some advice she has received suggests otherwise. She wasn't technically involved in the purchase of the house but is now the sole owner and will be the sole beneficiary from its sale.
Any opinions? Thanks.
I can't find an answer to this on the Revenue site so hoping someone can help.
House of relation, bought 40 years ago, was originally only in name of husband but later changed to joint names with his wife.
Husband died recently and wife is now sole owner of house.
She wants to sell and buy a smaller home.
I can't see any possible way that she could be categorised as a FTB, but some advice she has received suggests otherwise. She wasn't technically involved in the purchase of the house but is now the sole owner and will be the sole beneficiary from its sale.
Any opinions? Thanks.