M
mig
Guest
We are buying a duplex, and the title is leasehold. We have been advised that a leasehold will normally be used in this case because otherwise the Management Company might not be able to enforce the any conditions if the property was sold on. Ok so. I have a couple of questions on the nature of the lease, if anyone knows the answers? 1) The "Lessor" is the developer of the estate. Is this normal? Why would this not be the Management Company? 2) The lease is a 999 year lease. I understand that this is very common. I realise I'm unlikely to live to see the end of it, but if the purpose of the leasehold is to enable enforcement of conditions, why wouldn't it be perpetual?