I bought my home with an ex -partner un 2007, which was voluntarily surrendered to the bank about 9 years ago. The property was sold in late 2017, at a loss, (initial house value approx €330k, sold for€210k) and the other party promptly applied for bankruptcy which was approved. I could not afford to pay a loan (then €1400pm) for a house which was no longer mine, and made a decision to stop engaging for a number of reasons.
I know that the loan was sold to a vulture fund in 2018/2019, and I have not engaged with the new borrower at all. I have since gotten a credit report which shows that with arrears and interest, the due balance is approximately is over €215k. My question relates to my credit report. The "number of payment passed due" column, having orebiously showed a number of payments (eg 40, 41etc), has reverted to zero and has remained at that number for a number of months now; the balance has also remained static for this period, having increased incrementally up to that point. This starts on, to the date, the six year anniversary of the house being sold by the bank. I would like to know of this is;
1. Simply the loan becoming owed in full as it is unsecured and it has been so for 6 years at that point in
Or
2. Whether this could be an indicator that court proceeding could have been applied for?
I would be very grateful to anybody who could shed a bit of light on this query for me. As you can imagine, I have massive anxieties over this situation.
I know that the loan was sold to a vulture fund in 2018/2019, and I have not engaged with the new borrower at all. I have since gotten a credit report which shows that with arrears and interest, the due balance is approximately is over €215k. My question relates to my credit report. The "number of payment passed due" column, having orebiously showed a number of payments (eg 40, 41etc), has reverted to zero and has remained at that number for a number of months now; the balance has also remained static for this period, having increased incrementally up to that point. This starts on, to the date, the six year anniversary of the house being sold by the bank. I would like to know of this is;
1. Simply the loan becoming owed in full as it is unsecured and it has been so for 6 years at that point in
Or
2. Whether this could be an indicator that court proceeding could have been applied for?
I would be very grateful to anybody who could shed a bit of light on this query for me. As you can imagine, I have massive anxieties over this situation.
