morningperson
Registered User
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- 26
I've a property I bought as a FTB over 5 years ago.
I've been an owner-occupier of the property since then.
I'm thinking of renting it out, and renting myself, not buying another place or anything.
Because I'm renting it out I presume it is seen as an investment then (does this happen a year after you start renting it?).
So if I sold it 2 years later would I have to pay Gapital Gains on the appreciation on the amount it increased in value for the whole period I owned it (at that stage over 7 years)?
I've been an owner-occupier of the property since then.
I'm thinking of renting it out, and renting myself, not buying another place or anything.
Because I'm renting it out I presume it is seen as an investment then (does this happen a year after you start renting it?).
So if I sold it 2 years later would I have to pay Gapital Gains on the appreciation on the amount it increased in value for the whole period I owned it (at that stage over 7 years)?