Nppr owed on willed house

Athlone

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My wifes parents died in the last number of years, their house was in the mothers name at her death and was finally moved into several childrens names (as owners) in the last year.

My wife was executor and has received an NPPR bill for over 4K with the family home reckoned as the second property. . On what basis can the NPPR be expected to be paid. I am the sole owner of the home we live in (we only married in the last 2 years) and there has not been any dual ownership applied. Also my wife and her family only took ownership of their parents home in the last year??
 
There is no liability to NPPR in the period from your in-laws' death to the date that probate was extracted. However, once probate is granted, the executor is the deemed owner of the property and so liable to the charge.
 
I think the Co. Councils are just sending out letters and chancing their arm at the moment in the hope people will just pay up. There was a NPPR liability for last year if the house had changed names by that time i.e 30th March 2013. The penalties are huge for non-compliance so there would be a large sum owed if your wife was the owner on 30th March of 2012, 2011 and 2010. As stated despite saying you only took ownership of the property last year, you need to check when probate was granted as that is the time you are liable. Worryingly the liability is on all co-owners so if your wifes family have another property then you appear to be liable (also your wife is not living in it therefor it's not deemed to be her PPR and it is due as well). Looking at the late payment fees here the highest amount due is just under 4k so it seems they are making you liable for all years from 2009.
 
There is no liability to NPPR in the period from your in-laws' death to the date that probate was extracted. However, once probate is granted, the executor is the deemed owner of the property and so liable to the charge.

Is any distinction made between an inherited property that was not a testator's principal private residence and one that was?
 
Why is the date probate is extracted used? Is this a rule of thumb? I cannot see anything in the 2009 Act about this.
 
A married friend of mine took her aged sickly mother to live with them about 6 years ago. The old woman's house has not been lived in since, is beginning to look run down, etc. I've been told that in this instance the council will not place any property tax on the old woman's property, if a doctors note states that she has to be in the care of other people and is sick. Is this true?
 
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