8 Months After my Mother died the executors of her will inserted a clause that, in order for her property to be sold, that ALL (5) beneficiaries would have to be in agreement with the price, before a sale of her property could take place.
( This was not a condition laid down by my mother, she simply instructed that her home be sold and that the balance after all lawful deductions should be distributed equally among her 5 children)
Now 4 years after refusing a sale because one beneficiary did not agree, the house is still not sold, and is now only worth one third of the original offer.
Is it lawful for an executor to unilaterally insert a clause like the one mentioned above
( This was not a condition laid down by my mother, she simply instructed that her home be sold and that the balance after all lawful deductions should be distributed equally among her 5 children)
Now 4 years after refusing a sale because one beneficiary did not agree, the house is still not sold, and is now only worth one third of the original offer.
Is it lawful for an executor to unilaterally insert a clause like the one mentioned above