I am a joint mortgagor in a residential property. In the context of a divorce agreement I transferred my legal title in this property to the other joint-mortgagor.
I now have no legal ownership of the property but remain liable for the mortgagor (not the whole story but enough for this purpose)
Question: Should I have asked the mortgagee's permission to effect this transfer?
I now have no legal ownership of the property but remain liable for the mortgagor (not the whole story but enough for this purpose)
Question: Should I have asked the mortgagee's permission to effect this transfer?