Not sure if this is the correct thread.
In a will a woman was given left a house to live in if she got married, with residue to siblings in the even of her death and never having married. Now this lady who has dementia has been given a place in some health board care home. Health board have been supplied a copy of the will and have stated (orally) that the lady has ownership of the house. On what would they base this as clearly title has not, nor will pass to this lady?
In a will a woman was given left a house to live in if she got married, with residue to siblings in the even of her death and never having married. Now this lady who has dementia has been given a place in some health board care home. Health board have been supplied a copy of the will and have stated (orally) that the lady has ownership of the house. On what would they base this as clearly title has not, nor will pass to this lady?