Mortgage in Prtnr's name; (deemed) loan given to self to cover 1/2 deposit - Question

So, he took out a mortgage and purchased a house. I couldn't afford to contribute at the time but we wanted to split the risk/rewards everything (well, initially more the former than the latter - but he came around) so I am paying 1/2 of all bills, as well as making what contributions I can towards re-imbursing him for having to pay 100% of the initial deposit. (Idea here is I will eventually have paid him back 50% of the amount of the deposit and will eventually own 1/2 the equity in every way) (We are not pens and paper and calculator type people i.e. we have a fair idea of what is owed/owing and we want to be fair to each other)

Question is; if I have a small sum - as I occasinally have had in the past - I've given it 100% to him towards whittling down my share of the amount owing from the deposit. Should I instead pay it fully towards the mortgage (UB SVR) and deem it as if I have given him 1/2 the lump sum for the deposit? We're only talking lump-sums of about one thousand, two thousand etc etc.

You have some form of agreement in writing, don't you?

And an acknowledgement of all payments made? And an agreement that the 50% of all the bills is going towards you acquiring a legal interest in the property?

In the event of a split, what evidence do you have of your intentions? If things get nasty, could he say you gave him gifts? You were only a lodger?

And as for the actual query, it is all smoke and mirrors for the much bigger issue.

mf

Hi Newbie

The house and mortgage are in his sole name? You have no rights to this house or any equity in it. You might be able to establish rights, but it would be a very expensive legal process.

Is the house in negative equity at present?

Brendan

Hi. We have email exchanges outlining our intentions and we're each covering (for-want-of-a-better-term) stake-holder bills e.g. he covers x, y I cover house-insurances, life-insurances, bins, agent-charges. I've been the more hands-on in dealings with the solicitor when we purchased, although obviously it was his signature alone on deeds/mortgage etc (we're not married).

Yes, there is acknowledgement of monies paid via email/bank-statement transfers, although to be fair - I haven't paid as much as I'd have hoped for due to circumstances, but that is hopefully changing now.

House is in positive equity

The above comments/replies were more about my status in the event of a breakup, which is not where I'm coming from with my question ... ...

Call me sentimental but why are so formal as to want to pay back the deposit? I own a house, had my partner move in, we are now married. Should i make her pay towards it retrospectively?

Call it insecurity-legacy issues, old-partner issues on their side. I have no trouble paying it as ultimately in the long-run I do see it as taking it from one pocket and putting it in another.